EMDRIA Knowledge Check (6 day EMDR Training)

1. The three-pronged protocol refers to which of the following:

Fears related to a traumatic event, attachment experiences with primary caregivers, and structural dissociation of the personality.

Identify, target and process the earlier memories causing the problems, present experiences triggering the disturbance and the behaviors needed for adaptive future functioning.

Sensory experiences related to the trauma, unacted urges and impulses related to the trauma, and emotions related to the trauma.

The negative cognition, the positive cognition and the body sensations.

2. The positive/future template involves applying bilateral dual attention stimulation while a client runs through the sequence of a challenging past experience until there is no longer a disturbance associated with it.

True

False

3. Delineating the client’s presenting complaint and its symptoms, initial causes, duration, and additional past occurrences occurs during which Phase?

Phase 3 – Assessment

Phase 2 – Preparation

Phase 4 – Reprocessing

Phase 1 – History taking

4. Shapiro (2018) states that because EMDR therapy has been shown to be effective and efficient, it is not necessary to take steps to test whether clients can manage moderate to high levels of emotional disturbance and to practice self-control procedures.

True

False

5. Shapiro (2018) suggests the Safe/Calm place exercise is recommended as part of the preparation phase before starting reprocessing because:

Peaceful images do not produce any feelings of anxiety.

It unlocks and drains a reservoir of negative emotions.

It reassures clients they have a way to recover emotional stability during any disturbance.

It allows whatever happens to happen.

6. When selecting an image during Assessment Phase, the clinician should specifically ask:

What picture best represents the experience to you?

What picture represents what you think of yourself in your worst moments?

What scenery is passing by when you think of the incident?

What picture defines yourself in this moment?

7. A Negative Cognition (NC) is a negative self-statement the client believes at least to some extent about themselves now when recalling the disturbing event and picture.

True

False

8. What is the Validity of Cognition scale range (VoC)?

From 1-10

From 0-10

From 0-7

From 1-7

9. Naming the emotion(s) in the Assessment phase is important because:

It identifies the emotion that the client feels as they bring up the experience in present time.

It prevents confusion if they subsequently describe the reprocessing experience by using the SUD scale.

It produces a sense of accomplishment.

It separates the emotion psychologically from the sensation in the body.

10. Which three things should the clinician ask the client to notice when beginning the Desensitization Phase?

The image, the positive cognition and where they feel it in their body.

The negative cognition, the positive cognition and the emotion

The image, the negative cognition and where they feel it in their body.

The image, the bilateral dual attention stimulation and the emotion.

11. During the Desensitization Phase after the first set of BLS, it is advisable for the clinician to:

Remind client of the negative cognition.

Ask the client to continue to hold the original image in mind.

Refrain from reminding client of the negative cognition.

Check the validity of cognition.

12. Three primary themes for interweaves are:

Past, present, future.

Responsibility, Safety and Choices.

Supportive figures, personal achievements, spiritual figures.

Relationship, affect regulation, self-esteem.

13. Phase 8 Reevaluation:

Is optional because in many cases the target has already been processed to a SUD of 0 and a VoC of 7.

Is sometimes referred to as Reassessment Phase and should only be used after incomplete sessions.

Is vital and should open each reprocessing session after the first, assessing client’s progress and how well previously targeted material has been resolved.

Was added later by Francine Shapiro as the “R” in EMDR.

14. Shapiro (2018) states that, when reprocessing is not progressing even after changing the nature or type of bilateral dual attention stimulation, the clinician should:

Start a different target to see if that will resolve

Change the NC and PC in case they were the problem.

Explore ancillary factors, such as feeder memories, blocking beliefs or secondary gain.

End the session and switch back to talk therapy

15. When processing the initial target is unsuccessful, the clinician should consider inquiring about negative beliefs that are blocking progress.

True

False

16. When beginning the Phase 5 Installation, the first question to ask is:

“What do you notice in your body now?”

“Do the words [repeat the positive cognition] still fit, or is there another positive statement you feel would be more suitable?”

“What do you think about the negative cognition now?”

“How are you feeling when you recall the [restate the disturbing event]?”

17. When checking the VOC during Installation Phase, the therapist should say:

When you think about the original picture, what do you think now?

On a scale of 0 to 10 where 0 is no disturbance or neutral and 10 is the highest disturbance you can imagine, how disturbing does it feel to you now?

Think about the original incident and those words [selected positive cognition], from 1, completely false, to 7, completely true, how true do they feel?

Close your eyes and keep in mind the original memory and the positive cognition. Then bring your attention to the different parts of your body, starting with your head and working downward.

18. Because of the potential of EMDR for rapid destabilization, there are many client factors to consider prior to beginning EMDR. Which of the following is NOT a factor?

If the client has good affect tolerance.

If the client has a stable life environment.

If the client has stated they would like to start the EMDR immediately.

If the client can undergo temporary discomfort for long term relief.

19. In EMDR therapy, pathology is viewed in terms of maladaptive memory networks which have not been fully reprocessed and continue to be held in a state-specific form giving rise to maladaptive perceptions, behaviors, beliefs and attitudes.

True

False

20. The AIP model states that maladaptive personality traits may be:

The result of unprocessed experience

Intractable.

Pathological targets.

Difficult to treat.

21. According to Shapiro (2018), any event that has had a lasting negative effect on the self or psyche is by its nature traumatic.

True

False

22. The AIP model provides a framework for treatment, understanding development of pathology, making associations, coming to a resolution, and guiding future actions.

True

False

23. Which of the following is an important premise of the AIP model?

A long period of exposure to the memory of a traumatic incident is the best method for healing trauma.

Consistent client homework in between sessions is the key to therapy efficacy

The body has an intrinsic capacity for psychological self-healing.

Teaching clients improved responses to stimuli results in improved emotion.

24. According to Shapiro (2018), when the information processing system is activated it is:

Maladaptive.

Always going to result in rapid healing.

Adaptive.

Triggering.

25. Which of the following is not a factor in changes in the nervous system associated with psychological trauma that result in a loss of neural homeostasis:

Cortisol release.

Relaxation response.

Fluctuations in neurotransmitters.

Spikes in adrenaline.

26. Which of the following is not a hypothesis to explain the impact of eye movements on reprocessing are:

Dual attention taxes the working memory ultimately lowering the disturbance of the memory.

Bilateral eye movements elicit the orienting response, engaging the parasympathetic nervous and lowering the disturbance.

The rhythm of eye movements erases memories so that they are forgotten.

Eye movements stimulate a process similar to REM sleep.

27. Which of the following is not a strategy that clinicians can use to reinforce the client’s dual focus of attention and connection to present time:

Verbal reassurances during the set.

Purposely changing the direction and speed of the eye movements.

Make slower movements or cover a shorter range.

Check the VOC level.

28. According to Ashley’s and Lipscomb’s article in Go With That magazine, which best describes how cultural competency informs the application of EMDR therapy?

In History Taking, to prevent undisclosed pockets of feeder memories.

In Preparation, to allow the client to select resources that fit with their own adaptive information.

In Assessment, allowing the client to select a culturally relevant Negative or Positive Cognition.

Throughout all phases: through racerelated inquiry, culturally relevant cognitive interweaves, and awareness that successful desensitization may involve a higher level SUDs due to ongoing threats related to racism.

29. According to Archer’s article in Go With That magazine, Racial trauma is historical, multigenerational, and reinforced through implicit and explicit forms of discrimination and oppression. In addition to preverbal traumatic events, using EMDR helps to target second-generation traumatic material.

True

False

30. According to Archer’s article in Go With That magazine, when identifying adverse or traumatic experiences during history-taking with Black, Indigenous, People of Color (BIPOC) clients:

It is not important to consider a client’s race, as the concept is simply a social construct.

. The issue of race can be set aside, since race is actually a ‘fake’ reality with no real consequences.

. It is especially important to consider how a client might have been racialized into disadvantage, since racism affects one’s trauma history.

. Most BIPOC clients will have the same perspective on their experience of inequity and racism.

31. According to Ashley’s and Lipscomb’s article in Go With That magazine, the EMDR Therapist working with Black Americans should:

Consider historical trauma and the reluctance, stigma, and shame when seeking help.

Work with the client using color blindness as a model.

Avoid all reference to race

Ignore microaggressions when they are described.

32. In memories that might be a part of a case involving a legal proceeding, which of the following is true?

The client will forget what happened, thereby making their testimony unusable.

The client should avoid testifying immediately after an EMDR treatment session.

Informed consent should be used with all pertinent parties.

EMDR should not be attempted until after the legal proceeding is concluded.

33. According to Shapiro (2018), clinicians should be cognizant:

That false memory syndrome is a well known widely accepted common occurrence.

That limitations and distortions of memory may exist that could alter the accuracy of any memory that emerges during EMDR processing.

That a light hypnotic trance is necessary and desirable during reprocessing.

That childrens’ memories are historically accurate.

34. According to Shapiro (2018), research indicates that EMDR processing frequently leads to a somatic de-arousal response associated with eye movements.

True

False

35. Which of the Mechanisms of Action has not been strongly supported as an explanation for EMDR therapy?

Taxing Working Memory.

Exposure to High Levels of Distress.

REM Processes.

Orienting Response

36. So far, research has shown that no medications appear to completely block EMDR processing, although benzodiazepines have been reported to reduce treatment efficacy with some clients.

True

False

37. Francine Shapiro’s first controlled study included work with this PTSD population:

Vietnam Veterans.

Eating disordered patients

College students.

National Guard.

38. Since 1987, EMDR therapy has been empirically supported by numerous randomized controlled trials (RCTs) and is internationally recognized as an effective treatment for trauma and a wide range of experientially based disorders.

True

False

39. As a comprehensive approach, careful attention is given to images, beliefs, emotions, physical responses, increased awareness, internal stability, resiliency, and interpersonal systems in achieving the effects of EMDR therapy.

True

False

40. One way in which the standard EMDR therapy protocol differs from Cognitive Behavioral therapy is that the standard EMDR therapy protocol does not necessitate homework.

True

False

41. Which of the following are true of working with military personnel and veterans:

Several modifications need to be made to the standard EMDR therapy protocol.

It is important to develop cultural competence on the effect of military values and training.

It is best to avoid the use of interweaves.

Military personnel do not benefit from EMDR therapy due to the complexity of their trauma.

42. When targeting a process phobia, the clinician must address all the pertinent aspects of the experience, including decision-making and anticipatory anxiety.

True

False

43. Following the death of a loved one, a person may first experience emotional shock accompanied by numbing. In these cases, psychological first aid, rather than EMDR processing, is recommended at this stage.

True

False

44. According to Shapiro (2018), which of the following is the first step in the Recent Event Protocol?

Target the most disturbing aspect of the memory.

Obtain a narrative history of the event, noting the most disturbing moments.

Process present stimuli.

Incorporate positive future templates for each trigger.

45. The following statements are true for the treatment of children, except:

Children can create maps, timelines, and storybooks of their lives, through which the clinician can identify potential targets and resources.

Young children may use hands to indicate levels of disturbance.

Clinicians should advise parents to remain in the room and give verbal feedback during desensitization and installation phases

Clinician may ask for a “mixed up thought” or a “bad thought” to help elicit the negative cognition.

This quiz consists of EMDRIA mandated questions. All questions derive from Francine Shapiro’s book and material covered in your training.

(Each question has a hint if needed)

Quiz Summary

Information

Results

Results

Categories

1. Question

1. The three-pronged protocol refers to which of the following:

Hint

2. Question

2. The positive/future template involves applying bilateral dual attention stimulation while a client runs through the sequence of a challenging past experience until there is no longer a disturbance associated with it.

Hint

3. Question

3. Delineating the client’s presenting complaint and its symptoms, initial causes, duration, and additional past occurrences occurs during which Phase?

Hint

4. Question

4. Shapiro (2018) states that because EMDR therapy has been shown to be effective and efficient, it is not necessary to take steps to test whether clients can manage moderate to high levels of emotional disturbance and to practice self-control procedures.

Hint

5. Question

5. Shapiro (2018) suggests the Safe/Calm place exercise is recommended as part of the preparation phase before starting reprocessing because:

Hint

6. Question

6. When selecting an image during Assessment Phase, the clinician should specifically ask:

Hint

7. Question

7. A Negative Cognition (NC) is a negative self-statement the client believes at least to some extent about themselves now when recalling the disturbing event and picture.

Hint

8. Question

8. What is the Validity of Cognition scale range (VoC)?

Hint

9. Question

9. Naming the emotion(s) in the Assessment phase is important because:

Hint

10. Question

10. Which three things should the clinician ask the client to notice when beginning the Desensitization Phase?

11. Question

11. During the Desensitization Phase after the first set of BLS, it is advisable for the clinician to:

Hint

12. Question

12. Three primary themes for interweaves are:

Hint

13. Question

13. Phase 8 Reevaluation:

Hint

14. Question

14. Shapiro (2018) states that, when reprocessing is not progressing even after changing the nature or type of bilateral dual attention stimulation, the clinician should:

Hint

15. Question

15. When processing the initial target is unsuccessful, the clinician should consider inquiring about negative beliefs that are blocking progress.

Hint

16. Question

16. When beginning the Phase 5 Installation, the first question to ask is:

Hint

17. Question

17. When checking the VOC during Installation Phase, the therapist should say:

Hint

18. Question

18. Because of the potential of EMDR for rapid destabilization, there are many client factors to consider prior to beginning EMDR. Which of the following is NOT a factor?

Hint

19. Question

19. In EMDR therapy, pathology is viewed in terms of maladaptive memory networks which have not been fully reprocessed and continue to be held in a state-specific form giving rise to maladaptive perceptions, behaviors, beliefs and attitudes.

Hint

20. Question

20. The AIP model states that maladaptive personality traits may be:

Hint

21. Question

21. According to Shapiro (2018), any event that has had a lasting negative effect on the self or psyche is by its nature traumatic.

Hint

22. Question

22. The AIP model provides a framework for treatment, understanding development of pathology, making associations, coming to a resolution, and guiding future actions.

Hint

23. Question

23. Which of the following is an important premise of the AIP model?

Hint

24. Question

24. According to Shapiro (2018), when the information processing system is activated it is:

Hint

25. Question